I am trying to understand one step in Loring Tu's (Introduction to Manifolds) partial proof of the zig-zag lemma, showing that $H^k{C}$ is exact. See post, which doesn't ask this specific question.
Question:
In $(*)$, why does $ji(a') = 0$?
2026-04-25 08:48:33.1777106913
Zig-Zag Lemma: Prove
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