So, in more readable form, the following is true for sufficiently large $c$ and for $n>1$:
$$\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^{c \log(n)} < n^{-2}$$
This is literally given as a step in the proof I am reading with no explanation or justification. Wolfram Alpha tells me it is correct, but could somebody please break down the mathematics for this step? I am supposed to have been able to spot this step myself.
$$\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^{c \log(n)} < n^{-2}$$ Taking logarithm on both sides, we get $$\log\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)^{c \log(n)} < \log n^{-2}$$ $$\Rightarrow c \log(n)\cdot \log\left(\frac{2}{3}\right) < -2\log n$$ $$\Rightarrow c\cdot \log\left(\frac{2}{3}\right) < -2$$ Since $n>1$, we have $\log n > 0$, so we can perform the above cancellation without change of inequality. Hence, we have, $$ c > -\frac{2}{\log\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)}$$
Since $\log\left(\frac{2}{3}\right) < 0$, hence the change of the inequality.
Eventually this simplifies to $$c > 11.358$$
Hope this helps.