I want to talk about the weirdness of $2\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty n(-1)^{n-1}$ ,
$$\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty n(-1)^{n-1} = 1 - 2 + 3 - 4 + 5 - 6 + \dots$$
$$\times 2 \implies 2\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty n(-1)^{n-1} = 2 - 4 + 6 - 8 + 10 - 12 + \dots\quad\longleftarrow (1)$$
But
$2\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty n(-1)^{n-1}$
$=\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty n(-1)^{n-1} + \sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty n(-1)^{n-1}$
$= 1 - 2 + 3 - 4 + 5 - 6 + \dots$
$\quad\quad+ 1 - 2 + 3 - 4 + 5 - 6 +\dots$
$= 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + 1 - \dots \quad\longleftarrow (2)$
Is it true that these series are equal? The manipulation that I've made to get $(2)$ seems very unnatural but in my defense, the way I add them shouldn't matter because the result should be the same. For example, using the same manipulation on a finite series, $2( 1 + 2 + 3) = 1 + 3 + 5 +3$. It yields the same sum but I'm not sure if this is applicable to infinite series a well.
Using $S_\infty = \large \frac{a}{1-r}$ on $(2)$, it can be seen that it's sum is $\large \frac{1}{2}$.
Can I say that the sum of $(1)$ is the same?
I'm a high school student and I have no real background in sequences, so a simple and understandable answer is greatly appreciated. I may not understand many complicated terms but I am willing to learn.
Just as others have pointed out, this is a false derivation, as the validity of every step is premised on the series being convergent. The very fact the series are divergent, gives you NON-UNIQUE and contradictory results just as you have demonstrated. The assignment of a finite number to a divergent series is but a mnemonic to denote the application of analytic continuation.
A typical example of this mnemonic representation would be the series representation of the Riemann zeta function $\zeta(s)$. $\zeta(s)$ is defined and a meromorphic function on the entire complex plane with a simple pole at $s=1$. The infinite series representation only truly makes sense and valid only for half of the complex plane $\mathcal R(s)>1$, even though the function $\zeta(s)$ as a meromorphic function is uniquely defined, or, if we use the correct nomenclature, uniquely analytically continued, through out the entire complex plane. For convenience (euphemism for laziness, which I do not quite understand, since one can simply use the name Riemann zeta function or symbol $\zeta(s)$ which is much shorter than writing out $\sum\limits_{k=1}^\infty \frac{1}{k^s}$)some people continue to use the series representation beyond its valid domain $\mathcal R(s)<1$. But that is just a mnemonic "symbol".
Just as others have suggested, Terry Tao has a great real analysis alternative to explain and treat the analytic continuation problem.