I read many documents on markov processes and sometimes authors present a definition with conditional expectations and others define with simply a probability measure $\mathbb{P}$.
I want to understand the link between both representations. Is it an equivalence? Or only one sense is true? And why?
First one, $(V_t)_{t \geq 0}$
$\forall t \geq 0 \forall s \geq 0 $ $$\mathbb{E} [f(V_{t+s}) | \mathcal{F}_s ] = \mathbb{E}[ f(V_{t+s}) | V_s ] $$ $\forall$ borel function f.
Another classical definition:
$\forall A \in \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}) , \forall t \geq s$,
$$\mathbb{P} [ V_t \in A | \mathcal{F}_s] = \mathbb{P} [ V_t \in A | V_s ]$$
where $\mathcal{F}_s = \sigma ( V_u ; u \leq s )$
Thank you.
I believe that the Portmanteau's lemma is the result that you need to see that these definitions are equivalent, with $E$ the expectancy and $P$ the probability :
The Portmanteau lemma:
For any random vectors $X_n$ and $X$ the following statements are equivalent.
Source : Asymptotic Statistics, Van der Vaart.
I believe that you meant $\forall f$ continuous, and bounded.