I was given this question yesterday.
A dice is rolled. If the number is even, a coin is tossed. If it is odd, the dice is rolled exactly once again and results are recorded. Find the probability that an odd number occurs atleast once on the dice.
I feel the answer is $\frac12$. My teacher (who is an IITian) says that it is $\frac34$.
His approach
He says that we first write the sample space.
$$S={2h,2t,4h,4t,6h,6t,11,12,13,14,15,16,31,32,33,34,35,36,51,52,53,54,55,56}$$
which implies that the number of elements in sample space, $n(S)=24$
Now we define the event $E$ and give a set of favourable outcomes.
$$E={11,12,13,14,15,16,31,32,33,34,35,36,51,52,53,54,55,56}$$
which gives us $n(E)=18$
Now we use the formula $P(E)=\frac{n(E)}{n(S)}=\frac{18}{24}=\frac34$
My approach
I said that, since all outcomes do not have equal probability, we cannot use the formula. I gave another approach.
$$P(odd\ followed\ by\ odd)=\frac12\times\frac12=\frac14$$ $$P(odd\ followed\ by\ even)=\frac12\times\frac12=\frac14$$ $$P(even\ followed\ by\ either\ odd\ or\ even)=0$$
Hence $$P(atleast\ one\ odd)=P(odd\ followed\ by\ odd)+P(odd\ followed\ by\ even)=\frac14+\frac14=\frac12$$
And.....
I was quite sure of my answer, but so was he. He explained that the formula still works. I took up the issue twice, with no conclusion.
Request
Please let me know what the right answer is and why. Also give detailed (but simple) explanation as to why this is true. And if you have any degrees in math, please include that in your answer to make your answer credible.
You are correct. The second roll of the dice does not make a difference in the probability because an odd number will already be rolled, so it is $\frac{1}{2}$. Perhaps you could ask your teacher to consider the possibility that the dice can output numbers up to $1,000,000$ (or some other arbitrarily large even number). Then according to him the chance of rolling an odd number should be very high, when clearly half the rolls will be even and result in no odd numbers.