I am reading page 236 "Probability : theory and examples" by R. Durrett. Theorem 31. Let $X_1, X_2,\ldots$ be a martingale with $|X_{n+1}-X_n|\leq M<\infty$. Let
$C=\{\lim X_n \;\;\; \text{exists and finite} \}$
$D=\{\limsup X_n =\infty \;\;\; \text{and}\;\; \liminf X_n =-\infty \}$ then $P(C\cup D)=1$.
Proof
Since $X_n-X_0$ is a martingale , so we can without loss of generality suppose that $X_0=0$. Now let $0<K<\infty$ and let $N=\inf\{n : X_n\leq -K\}$. $X_{n\wedge N}$ is a martingale with $X_{n\wedge N}\geq -K-M$. By applying (2.11) for $X_{n\wedge N}+K+M$, $\lim X_n$ exists on $\{ N=\infty\}$. By letting $K\to \infty$, we see that the limit exists on $\{\liminf X_n>-\infty\}$. $\Box$
My questions are:
Why $X_{n\wedge N}\geq -K-M$? isn't it $X_{n\wedge N}\geq -K$ ?
Why does the limit exist on $\{\liminf X_n>-\infty\}$ ?
It would be greatly appreciated if some one could help me on this. Thanks for your time.