The Thue–Morse sequence$^{[1]}$$\!^{[2]}$ $t_n$ is an infinite binary sequence constructed by starting with $t_0=0$ and successively appending the binary complement of the sequence obtained so far: $$\begin{array}l 0\\ 0&\color{red}1\\ 0&1&\color{red}1&\color{red}0\\ 0&1&1&0&\color{red}1&\color{red}0&\color{red}0&\color{red}1\\ 0&1&1&0&1&0&0&1&\color{red}1&\color{red}0&\color{red}0&\color{red}1&\color{red}0&\color{red}1&\color{red}1&\color{red}0\\ \hline 0&1&1&0&1&0&0&1&1&0&0&1&0&1&1&0&1&0&0&1&0&1&1&\dots\\ t_0&t_1&t_2&t_3&t_4&\dots\!\!\! \end{array}$$
It has many interesting properties: it is aperiodic, cube-free, shows the parity of the number of $1$'s in the binary representation of a natural number, has connections to the Fabius function, the hypergeometric function, etc.
There is a nice formula for this sequence that uses only elementary functions, binomial coefficients and finite summation: $$t_n=\frac43\,\sin^2\left(\frac\pi3\left(n-\sum_{k=1}^n(-1)^{\binom n k}\right)\right)=\operatorname{mod}\left(2n+\sum_{k=1}^n(-1)^{\binom n k},\,3\right).$$ Unfortunately, I could not find a proof of this formula anywhere and could not construct it myself. So, I'm asking for your help with this.
Given any integer $n \ge 0$, let $( n_0, n_1, n_2, \ldots )$ be its binary representation, i.e.
$$n = \sum_{i=0}^\infty n_i 2^i, \quad n_i \in \{ 0, 1 \}$$
Let $P(n) = n_0$ be the parity of $n$ and $N(n) = \sum\limits_{i=0}^\infty n_i$ be the number of set bits in this binary representation. It is not hard to see $t_n = 1$ when and only when $N(n)$ is odd. i.e. $$t_n = P(N(n))$$
Notice $$n - \sum_{k=1}^n (-1)^{\binom{n}{k}} = \sum_{k=0}^n \left(1 - (-1)^{\binom{n}{k}}\right) -2 = 2\sum_{k=0}^nP\left(\binom{n}{k}\right) - 2\tag{*1} $$ For any $0 \le k \le n$, let $(k_0,k_1,k_2,\ldots)$ be the binary representation of $k$.
By Lucas' theorem, we have $$P\left(\binom{n}{k}\right) = \prod_{i=0}^\infty P\left(\binom{n_i}{k_i}\right)$$
where $\displaystyle\;\binom{n_i}{k_i}$ should be interpreted as $0$ whenever $n_i < k_i$.
In order for the summand in RHS of $(*1)$ to be non-zero,
This means in the rightmost sum of $(*1)$, exactly $2^{N(n)}$ of $P(\cdot)$ contributes. This leads to
$$\begin{align} & n - \sum_{k=1}^n(-1)^{\binom{n}{k}} = 2^{N(n)+1} - 2 \equiv 2P(N(n)) \pmod 3\\ \implies & \frac43\sin^2\left(\frac{\pi}{3}\left(n - \sum_{k=1}^n (-1)^{\binom{n}{k}}\right)\right) = \frac43\sin^2\left(\frac{2\pi}{3}P(N(n))\right) \stackrel{\color{blue}{\because P(\cdot) = 0\text{ or } 1}}{=} P(N(n)) = t_n \end{align}$$