Prove the identity: $$\frac{\displaystyle\sum_{k=0}^{a} {n+a-k-2\choose n-2}}{\displaystyle {n+a-1\choose a}} = 1$$ where $C_{i}^{j}$ is defined as the number of ways to simultaneously choose $j$ objects from $i$ objects.
My attempt: I was trying to use a combinatorial argument by saying that out of the given $n$ balls, each of the terms within the summation is the probability of a given urn containing exactly $k$ balls for $k = 0,1,2,...,n$. Thus, the sum reflects the sum of all the probabilities of that urn having exactly $k$ balls, so it must be $1$.
My question: I would like to see an algebraic proof for this identity. Could someone please help with such a proof? In case my argument above is incorrect, please help point out the mistake.
Here is a variation based upon the coefficient of operator $[x^k]$ to denote the coefficient of $x^k$ in a series. This way we can write e.g. \begin{align*} [x^k](1+x)^n=\binom{n}{k} \end{align*}
Comment:
In (1) we use the binomial identity $\binom{-p}{q}=\binom{p+q-1}{p-1}(-1)^q$ with $p=n-1$ and $q=a-k$.
In (2) we apply the coefficient of operator.
In (3) we use the linearity of the coefficient of operator and apply the rule $$[x^{p-q}]A(x)=[x^p]x^qA(x)$$ We also extend the upper range of the series to $\infty$ without changing anything since we are adding zeros only.
In (4) we use the geometric series expansion.
In (5) we select the coefficient of $x^a$.
In (6) we use again the binomial identity as we did in (1).