Is there a non-constant periodic solution to Cauchy's function equation i.e. $f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y)$?
My attempts:
Obviously $f(0)=0$, but if $k$ is non-zero: $ f(x+k) = f(x) \implies 0=f(k) = f(\frac{n-1}{n}k + \frac{1}{n}k) =...=nf(\frac{1}{n}k) \implies 0=f(\frac{1}{n}k)$
from which: $0*m = 0 = mf(\frac{1}{n}k) = f(\frac{m}{n}k)$ i.e $f$ is zero for all $x \in k\mathbb Q$
If $f$ is non-zero, then it is not bounded (goo.gl/d670wu). If $f(x_0)$ is a non-zero point, then by similar reasoning $f$ is non-zero for all $x \in x_0\mathbb Q_{>0}$, and since $0 = f(x + (-x)) = f(x) + f(-x) \implies f(x) = -f(-x)$, it follows that $f$ is non-zero for all $x \in x_0\mathbb Q \setminus \{0\}$
if $|f(x_1)|$ is infinite, then by the equation and similar reasoning $|f|$ is infinite for all $x \in x_1\mathbb Q\setminus\{0\}$
If we continue this type of conquer-divide stratergy, we will get a partition $\mathbb R = k\mathbb Q \cup \bigcup_{i}[ x_i\mathbb Q \setminus\{0\}]$, where $ \{k\} \cup \{x_i\}_i$ is some sort of set where all the numbers are not rational multiplies of each other, nor are expressible as a countable sum of each other.
I don't even know if this makes sense.
Assuming $f$ is supposed to be $\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$:
If you require $f$ to be continuous, then it has to be everywhere zero -- namely it is easy to see that it must be zero at every rational multiple of the period, and the continuity assumption then takes care of the rest.
If $f$ does not have to be continuous, then we can construct an example using the Axiom of Choice. Consider $\mathbb R$ to be a vector space over $\mathbb Q$, and choose a basis for it. Let $b_1,b_2$ be two different elements of the basis, and consider $$ f(x) = \text{the coefficient of $b_1$ when $x$ is a rational combination of basis elements} $$ Then $f$ is a linear transformation $\mathbb R\to\mathbb Q$, and therefore satisfies the Cauchy equation. It satisfies $f(0)=0$ and $f(b_1)=1$, so it is not constant. And because $f(b_2)=0$, it has $b_2$ as a period.
(It is difficult to visualize this $f$ intuitively; its graph is dense in $\mathbb R^2$).
Without some form of Choice, I think it is impossible to prove the existence of such a function. But I don't have an argument for this ready.