$$h(x)=\Big({1\over x}\int_0^x (1-t)^{1/(1-x)}dt\Big)^{1-x},\quad 0<x<1$$ is some kind of a wicked mean of $1-t$. Anyhow the question is to show that it is first decreasing, then increasing, and to find the minimum. Any thoughts?
2026-04-09 14:56:02.1775746562
A not so simple minimization?
71 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in CALCULUS
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