Preamble
I'm not a mathematician. I'm just curious. Please forgive my pseudo formalism.
Please allow me, a non mathematician, to have just questions.
Definition
A mathematical theorem is a statement that has been proven on the basis of previously established statements, such as other theorems—and generally accepted statements, such as axioms.
Questions
Let say from a theorem Tn
, a theorem Tm
can be deducted (Tn < Tm)
- How far can we possibly go like that to the left and right?
I mean is there a T0
and a Tp
such as: T0< ... < Tm < Tm+1 < .. <Tp
?
If we consider that more than one theorem can be deducted directly from
Tm
and denote this set (of deducted theorems) by{Tr(m+1), .., Ts(m+1)}
: Is this sub set finite and any subsets for any elementTm+1
?And so on and so forth with the element of any subset (recursive approach)
In others words
As the above represent a tree, is there a root, and are the number of branches, sub-branches, etc.. finite, leading to leaf (are they then axioms?)
I'm looking at all the possible kind of branches: not only those of type T
, but also of any type (T, U, ..)
.
- Again, if we denote the set of all these types
{.., T, U, ...}
, is this set likely to be finite such it exist two elementsA
andZ
such asA<..<T<U<..<Z
?
While I tried poorly to express myself using a pseudo mathematical approach, my question is in fact:
- Is there a possible super theorem (like in physics, an attempt finding the theory of everything), or a couple of them, from which all theorems can be deducted?
Comments
Can the existence of such super theorem(s) be concluded as existing just by using the mathematical induction principle ?
a) Could the mathematics we know today be sufficient to express a super theorem?
b) Could/should any formalism be created to describe such super theorem ?
Final words (blabla that you may want to ignore)
I guess there may be some non sense in my questions due to my lack of skills, and that few logical assertions would provide me with the right an answer. I'm looking for these assertions.
Assuming mathematics is all about discovering (and not to inventing - hard to say though if invent is not discovering then), I suppose this open the door to questioning the existence of a super theorem.
Finally, in literature, by creating a random list of words, one can generate any books, articles, etc.. that have and will ever been written. This random generator doesn't constitute by itself a theorem (or does it somehow), but is it possible to do that in mathematics ?
Isn't mathematics a suite of logical concepts, having probably for initial ingredients the definition of the number sets and operations. Mixing then these numbers and operation to create groups, arranging group elements into series or whatever else, series leading to geometry or whatever else, etc.
Wondering is a random theorem generator is then possible to create, taking the base ingredients, classifying them, until a super theorem.
Compared to physics (top down approach), mathematics sounds doing the opposite (bottom up approach). This may be a reason why a super theorem doesn't exists or if it does, will never be found ?
Drawing the trees of the existing theorem, can one deduct missing one?
There is no leftmost theorem (= theorem from which no othre theorem can be deducted). For example if $\Phi$ is a theorem, then we can deduce $\neg\neg\Phi$. Or if $\forall n\ge a\colon \Psi(a)$ is a theorem then we can deduce from it that $\forall n\ge a+1\colon \Psi(a)$ is a theorem.
makes little sense as according to your notation
Tm
is deducted fromTm+1
. At any rate, it is possible to derive infinitely many theorems from a single theorem in one step, for example by specialization of a general statement: $\forall n\in\Bbb N\colon \Phi(n)$ leads directly to $\Phi(42)$ and $\Phi(666)$ and ...is not even a question
Remark: The "derivation dependency" is not a tree as it is not always the case that one theorem is derived from a single theoram. For example, to derive a theorem $\Phi\land \Psi$ one might require both $\Phi$ and $\Psi$. Additionally, theorems may be proved from very different theorems. For example a proof of $\Phi\lor \Psi$ might be from$\Phi$, another might be from $\Psi$, and another even from neither!
???
That would be the conjunction of all axioms into a single axiom. However, these depend on the theory. A good starting point would be ZFC for set theory. Another however: many axiom systems involve infintely many axioms (so-called axiom schemes), so are not combinable into a single formula by $\land$.
No. It can be shown that certain theories are not finitely axiomatizable
Irrelevant because of 6