Suppose all members of a countably infinite set of people each pick an integer "at random" (I want to avoid uniform distributions for the obvious reasons). (I hope this setting makes enough sense for my question to have meaning; I would certainly appreciate constructive comments on this matter.)
Then what is the probability that at least one integer has been picked an infinite number of times ?
EDIT: my sentence "I want to avoid uniform distributions for the obvious reasons" was not understood by some, so I will formulate a more precise version as well which is less confusing (I hope). For this question, I will only assume finite additivity for probabilities (and not Kolgomorov's countable additivity), so that one can work with uniform distributions on countable infinite sets, which is what we do here. (I will call these generalized probabilities "f-probabilities.")
QUESTION: What is the f-probability that at least one integer has been picked an infinite number of times ?
If the probabilities are finitely additive then the uniform distribution on a countably infinite set $X$ is trivial. Namely, suppose that each $x\in X$ has a probability $p(x)=p$ to be chosen. Since for each finite subset $F$ of $X$ we have $1\ge \sum_{x\in F} p(x)= \sum_{x\in F} p=p|F|$, we have $p=0$.