Let $\mu$ be the Lebesgue measure on $[0,1]$ and $A$ be a Borel subset of $[0,1]$.
Consider a point $x_0 \in A$ such that for any neighborhood $V$ of $x_0$ in $[0,1]$, we have $\mu(V \cap A)>0$.
Let $f: [0,1] \rightarrow [0,1]$ be a continuous function such that $f(x_0) = x_0$.
Question: Is it true that $\mu(f(A) \cap A)>0$ ?
Remark: If necessary, we can assume that $f$ is $C^1$, or even $C^{\infty}$.
This is wrong, because there is a counterexample (using a $C^\infty$ function $f$):
For example, you can choose $x_0=1/2, f(x) = 2x(1-x), A=[1/2,1]$.