I am working on this problem from my past Qual
"Give a sequence s.t. there is no analytic function $f:D\to \mathbb{C}$ s.t. $a_1=f'(0),a_2=f''(0),...$" where $D$ is the unit disk."
The only thing I can think of the Cauchy's integral formula$$f^{(n)}(0)=\frac{n!}{2\pi i} \int \frac{f(w)}{w^n}dw$$ But that's it. I don't see a relation between these to construct a counterexample. How do I proceed?
Take $a_n=(n!)^{2}$. If such a function exist then $\sum \frac {f^{(n)} (0)} {n!} z^{n}$ would converge for $|z| <1$. But $\sum \frac {f^{(n)} (0)} {n!} z^{n}=\sum (n!)z^{n}$ and this series converges only for $x=0$. [If you prefer you can take $a_n=n^{n}n!$].