Suppose ${ \{s_n \}}_{n=1}^\infty $
be a sequence of positive numbers and $0<x<1$ . If $s_{n+1}<xs_n (n\in I)$ then $$\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} s_n =0 $$
My attempt: since $x<1$ it follows that $s_{n+1}<s_n $. Thus $s_n$ is a decreasing sequence and also bounded below by 0. Therefore it is convergent.
But to say that this sequence exactly converge to 0 i tried contradiction method like:
If there exists no N such that $$|s_n|< \epsilon , (n\ge N)$$
Thus for any N $$|s_n| > \epsilon, (n\ge N) $$
$$\implies s_n > \epsilon, (n\ge N)$$
But then w.k.t. $$s_{N+1}<s_N$$
Is this gives a contradiction or did i do something wrong? Can anyone explain!!
Let $\varepsilon>0$ and $0<x<1$, $x\in \mathbb{R}$. From the given sequence and the condition $s_{n+1}<xs_n$, as @kieransquared mentioned in the comments, we can see that $s_{n+1}<x^ns_1$ or similarly $s_{n}<x^{n-1}s_1$. This means that there exists $N$ such that $x^Ns_1<\varepsilon$, since all members of the given sequence are positive real numbers, as such $s_1$ is also a positive real number. Then $\forall n > N$ we have:$$|s_{n}-0|=s_n<x^{n-1}s_1<x^Ns_1<\varepsilon\implies N>\log_{x}\frac{\varepsilon}{s_1}$$
Since $\varepsilon>0$ is arbitrary we come to the conclusion that $\forall \varepsilon >0 \exists N=\lfloor\log_{x}\frac{\varepsilon}{s_1}\rfloor+1, \forall n >N $ $|s_n-0|<\varepsilon$. This means $\displaystyle \lim_{n\to \infty}{s_n}=0$.