The question is given below:
I found a solution online using Gram Schmidt procedure but I need a solution without it, could anyone help me in this, please?
EDIT:
I was given a hint that I can show that there is a dual basis and that the inner product establishes an isomorphism $\delta$ between the space and its dual and to let $w_{j} = \delta^{-1} (v_{j}^*)$ where $v_{j}^*$ are the dual basis of $v_{j}$ and that $<v_{i}, w_{j}> \delta_{w_{j} (v_{i})}$ but still I do not understand the intuition of the hint. could anyone explain for me what is this hint doing?

Let us focus on $w_1$ first. Since $\langle v_i, w_1 \rangle = 0$ for $i = 2, \ldots, n$, we know $w_1$ must lie in the orthogonal complement of $\text{span}\{v_2, \ldots, v_n\}$. This orthogonal complement is nontrivial (since $\text{span}\{v_2, \ldots, v_n\}$ has dimension $<n$), so there exists some vector $u$ in it. We must have $\langle u, v_1 \rangle \ne 0$, else $v_1$ lies in $\text{span}\{v_2, \ldots, v_n\}$ which contradicts the fact that $\{v_1,\ldots, v_n\}$ is a basis. Thus, we can choose $w_1 := \frac{1}{\langle u, v_1 \rangle} u$ to obtain $\langle w_1, v_1 \rangle = 1$.
The other $w_2, \ldots, w_n$ can be determined similarly.