Let $a$ be a real number with $a > e^{1/e}$ and $a <> e$.
$slog$ means superlog base $e$ and $sexp$ means superexp base $e$.
$sloga$ means superlog with base $a$ and $sexpa$ means superexp base $a$.
$k$ is a real number with $k>0$ and $x$ is a real number with $x>0$.
Conjecture
There exists a real constant $Q > 0$ for each k (as a function of k) such that as $x$ goes to +infinity :
$Q = \dfrac{sexp( slog(sexp(slog(x)+k)/sexpa(sloga(x)+k)) -k)}{x}$
or equivalently
$sexp(slog(Qx) + k) = sexp(slog(x)+k) / sexpa(sloga(x)+k)$
Now this is a conjecture about when $x$ goes to $oo$. If $k$ goes to OO we can show there is a $Q$ for that $k$. To see that we use the famous change of base :
lim $k$ (change of base)
$Ax = sexp( slog( sexpa(sloga(x)+k) ) -k)$
Where $A$ is a nonzero real number.
or equivalently
$sexp(slog(Ax) + k) = sexpa(sloga(x)+k)$
Now if we plug this in the previous equations we get
$=> sexp(slog(Qx) + k) = sexp(slog(x)+k) / sexp(slog(Ax)+k)$
And thus $Q$ and $A$ are trivially linked.
If $A > 1 \implies Q < 1$. If $A < 1 \implies Q > 1$ And $0<QA<oo$
Thus if $k$ goes to oo we have solved the Conjecture , but if $k$ is finite the use of the base change is more dubious.
How to prove the Conjecture ?
Not a full answer or intended as an answer but related and too long for comment.
Concerning that related base change idea.
My apologies if this is already posted on some math forum , MSE or MO.
Also Im not 100 % sure.
More apologetics ; this is a sketch from 'tommy1729' from an email so credit goes to him.
Attempted proof (sketch)
title : change of base 'wobble' proof.
sexp(slog( sexpa(sloga(x)+k) ) -k) = A x + o(1)
( for lim k = oo POSITIVE INTEGER ! )
sexp(slog( sexpa(sloga(x+y)+k) ) -k) = A (x+y) + o(1)
sexp(slog( sexpa(sloga(x)+k+1/2) ) -k) = A (x+y) + o(1)
--
sloga(x+y) = sloga(x)+1/2
y = sexpa(sloga(x)+1/2) - x
A(x+y) = A sexpa(sloga(x)+1/2)
--
sexp(slog( sexpa(sloga(x)+k+1/2) ) -k) = A sexpa(sloga(x)+1/2) + o(1)
sexp(slog( sexpa(sloga(x)+k+1/2) ) -k-1/2) = sexp( slog( A sexpa(sloga(x)+1/2) + o(1) ) -1/2)
= ? = A x + o(1)
reverse ?
?<=> slog(A x +o(1)) +1/2 = slog( A sexpa(sloga(x)+1/2) + o(1) )
=> assume o(1) = 0 (?)
=> y >> x
?<=> slog(A x) + 1/2 = slog( A (x+y) )
AND
<= slog(A z) = sloga(z)
? }=> A z = sexp(sloga(z))
( = <=> A sexpa(z) = sexp(z) )
<=> sexp(sloga(z)) = sexp(slog( sexpa(sloga(z)+k) ) -k)
=> sloga(z) = slog( sexpa(sloga(z)+k) ) -k use x = sloga(z) <=> x = slog( sexpa(x+k) ) -k
statement false , proof by contradiction. QED.
end proof
=> argument against your OP on MSE.
It is surprising that this is INDEPENDANT of the type of abel or inverse abel (super) we use.
Im am still not feeling well so forgive If i made a mistake.
end quote tommy1729.
I did not have time to format sorry.
Maybe this is what Shel wanted partially.