I am struggling to prove a very intuitive property about iterated expectations.
We know that $$\mathbb E[X] = \mathbb E[\mathbb E[X\vert Y]].$$
I want to argue the following:
\begin{align*} \mathbb E[XY \vert Z ] = \mathbb E[X \mathbb E[Y \vert X,Z] \vert Z] \end{align*}
But I am having a hard time establishing this using the definition of conditional expectations.
To prove this would entail proving,
\begin{align*} \int_S XY d\mathbb P = \int_S X \mathbb E[Y \vert X,Z] d\mathbb P \end{align*} for all $S \in \sigma(Z)$.
This would be true if, for example, $Y = \mathbb E[Y \vert X,Z]$ which seems way demanding and is, most likely, not true.
Could anyone help please?
In its more general version, the tower property of conditional expectation tells you that if $\mathcal G,\mathcal H$ are two sub-sigma algebras of $\mathcal F$ with $\mathcal H \subseteq \mathcal G$, then for any random variable $\tilde X$ on $(\Omega,\mathcal F,\mathbb P)$, we have $$\mathbb E[\tilde X\mid\mathcal H] =\mathbb E \big[\mathbb E[\tilde X\mid\mathcal G]\mid\mathcal H\big]$$
Applying the above with $\tilde X := XY$, $\mathcal G :=\sigma(X,Z)$ and $\mathcal H := \sigma(Z)$ we immediately get $$\mathbb E[XY \mid Z ] = \mathbb E[ \mathbb E\big[XY \mid X,Z] \mid Z\big] $$ Which is almost the desired result. All that is left is to notice that since $X$ is $\sigma(X,Z)$-measurable, we have $\mathbb E\big[XY \mid X,Z]=X\mathbb E\big[Y \mid X,Z]$ and the desired result follows.