I have a question about the definition of subgaussianity.
I have one version of the definition of sub-gaussianity on my textbook here, that is:
Suppose random variable X follows the inequality $\mathbb{E}[\exp(\lambda X)] \leq \exp(\frac{\lambda^2 \sigma^2}{2})$ for $\forall \lambda \in \mathbb{R}$, then we say that $X$ is $\sigma$-subgaussian.
However, this definition automatically results in the $X$ being centered. I also checked the wikipedia on the definition of sub-gaussianity, which seems to have slightly more relaxed condition called the Laplace condition: $$\exists B, b>0, \quad \forall \lambda \in \mathbb{R}, \quad \mathbb{E}[ e^{\lambda(X-\mathrm{E}[X])}] \leq B e^{\lambda^{2} b}$$
My question is: what's the relationship between these two condition? If we have the Laplace condition hold, what can we say about the sub-gaussian parameter of the random variable $X$? Is it automatically $\sqrt{2b}$-subgaussian?
Thanks for any help.
Vershynin's book is a good reference for various equivalent definitions of sub-Gaussianity (and the proofs of their equivalence and keeping track of constants throughout).
Regarding the centering, there isn't an established convention.
I'm not sure what textbook you are using, but the MGF condition $E[e^{\lambda X}] \le e^{\lambda^2 \sigma^2 /2}$ is the definition only when $E[X]=0$.
Also, the usage of "$\sigma$-subGaussian" (sometimes elsewhere as "$\sigma^2$-subGaussian" like in Rigollet's text) isn't standardized, and may differ from context to context.