It seems $\cos(x)$ and $\sin(x)$ are the only entire functions, that are the functional inverse of an integral of some elementary function $f(x)$ , such that they have a simple infinite product representation. Is that true ? Why ? Is $\prod (1-\frac{x^3}{n^3})$ or $\prod(1-\frac{x^4}{n^4})$ a counterexample ?
2026-03-26 22:15:21.1774563321
About the functional inverse of integrals and infinite products.
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