This is rather a simple question.
I know that if I have a $n\times n$ matrix and I have $n$ circles, all disjoint with each other, then that matrix is diagonalizable.
So, why is that true?
2025-01-13 17:11:17.1736788277
About the Gershgorin theorem implying diagonalization
210 Views Asked by xtreyreader https://math.techqa.club/user/xtreyreader/detail AtRelated Questions in LINEAR-ALGEBRA
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