Using the Feynman Technique,
Let $$I(a) := \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{(\sin x)^a - 1}{\ln(\sin x)} \mathrm{d}x$$
$$I’(a)= \int_0^{\pi/2} (\sin x)^a \mathrm{d}x = \frac{\sqrt{π}}{2} \frac{\Gamma\left(\frac{a+1}{2}\right)}{ \Gamma\left(\frac{a+2}{2}\right)}$$
$$I(a)= \frac{\sqrt{π}}{4} \frac{\Gamma\left(\frac{a+1}{2}\right)\left(\psi\left(\frac{a+1}{2}\right)-\psi\left(\frac{a+2}{2}\right)\right)}{\Gamma\left(\frac{a+2}{2}\right)} +C$$
The constant I’ve got is $\frac{π \ln 2}{2}$.
Therefore,
$$\begin{split} \int_0^{π/2} (\sin x-1)/\ln(\sin x) \mathrm{d}x &= I(1)\\ &= \frac{\sqrt{π}}{4} \frac{\Gamma(1)(\psi(1)-\psi(3/2))}{\Gamma(3/2)} + \frac{\pi \ln 2}{2}\\ &= \frac{1}{2} (2\ln 2 -2) + \frac{\pi \ln 2}{2}\\ &= \ln 2 - 1 + \frac{\pi \ln 2}{2}\\ &\approx 0.782 \end{split}$$
But WolframAlpha gave me the result about $1.23$.
What mistakes did I just make?Thank you
The quantity $$\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{4} \frac{\Gamma\left(\frac{a+1}{2}\right)\left(\psi\left(\frac{a+1}{2}\right)-\psi\left(\frac{a+2}{2}\right)\right)}{\Gamma\left(\frac{a+2}{2}\right)}$$ is $I''(a)$, not $I(a)$ as you wrote. I don't know how to express $$I(1) - I(0) = \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2} \int_0^1 \frac{\Gamma\left(\frac{a+1}{2}\right)}{\Gamma\left(\frac{a+2}{2}\right)} \,da$$ in simpler terms, nor does Mathematica or Maple.