Let's say I have an integral:
$$\int_{B_{t}} f(t,x) \mathrm{d}x$$
where $B_t$ is the ball of radius $t$. And I would like to apply the Leibniz rule to compute the derivative of this. How would I do it?
I know that the formula goes something like this:
$$\frac{d}{dt}\int_{B_{t}} f(t,x) \mathrm{d}x = \int_{B_t} \frac{d}{dt}f(t,x) \mathrm{d}x + \int_{\partial B_t}g(t,x) \mathrm{d}S$$
I know that $g$ is supposed to have something to do with the velocity of the boundary (I saw this term used when discussing the Reynolds transport theorem). What does this mean exactly? How can I compute it for the case of the unit ball?
See it this way: The function $$\Phi(u,v):=\int_{B_u} f(v,x)\>{\rm d}x$$ of two variables is precomposed with the function $$t\mapsto\bigl(u(t),v(t)\bigr):=(t,t)\qquad(t>0)\ ,$$ and we are told to compute the derivative of the function $$\phi(t):=\Phi\bigl(u(t),v(t)\bigr)$$ with respect to $t$. According to the chain rule we have $$\phi'(t)=\Phi_u\bigl(u(t),v(t)\bigr)u'(t)+\Phi_v\bigl(u(t),v(t)\bigr)v'(t)=\Phi_u\bigl(t,t\bigr)+\Phi_v\bigl(t,t\bigr)\ .\tag{1}$$ The basic form of Leibniz' rule tells us that $$\Phi_v(u,v)=\int_{B_u}f_{.1}(v,x)\>{\rm d}x\ .$$ In order to compute $\Phi_u$ we look at $$\Phi(u+h,v)-\Phi(u,v)=\int_{B_{u+h}\setminus B_u}f(v,x)\>{\rm d}x\tag{2}$$ for $0<h\ll1$. The domain of integration then is a spherical shell of thickness $h$. Partition this shell into $N$ tiny fragments of area $\omega_k$, and choose a sampling point $x_k$ in each of these fragments. The integral on the right hand side of $(2)$ then is approximatively equal to the Riemann sum $$\sum_{k=1}^N f(v,x_k)\omega_k h\ .$$ This makes it plausible that $${\Phi(u+h,v)-\Phi(u,v)\over h}\approx \sum_{k=1}^N f(v,x_k)\omega_k\ ,$$ and that in the limit $h\to0+$ we have $$\Phi_u(u,v)=\int_{S_u}f(v,x)\>{\rm d}\omega\ ,$$ whereby now the integral is over the sphere $S_u$ of radius $u$.
Plugging everything into $(1)$ we obtain $$\phi'(t)=\int_{B_t}f_{.1}(v,x)\>{\rm d}x+\int_{S_t}f(v,x)\>{\rm d}\omega\ .$$