I have been thinking about the following classical theorem of propositional calculus:
Adequacy Theorem:
if $A$ is a tautology then $A$ is provable by the logical axioms
Now "$A$ is a tautology" is a sentence of the form $\forall v T_A$($v$) (where $v$ is a valuation function and $T_A(v)$ says that $A$ is true for $v$) while on the other hand "A is provable" is $\exists p$ i.e. an existential statement.
Looking at classical proofs of this theorem it seems to me that we started with a hypothesis which is not existential and we came up claiming that there exists something (a proof) without actually providing any way to find it(!)
The proof of Adequacy Theorem is carried out in slightly different ways among the logic textbooks but I suppose the core argument is essentially the same. In my book (Hamilton) the key step of the proof are:
lemma 1
if the system $L^*$ is consistent then there exists a consistent complete extension
lemma 2
if $L^*$ is consistent and complete then $L^*$ has a model
my understanding is that the relevant "existence bit" of the proof is in lemma 1 and apparently it seems nonconstructive to me and even if it would be constructive we are using it in a proof by contradiction.
So my questions are:
- which logical principles are involved here? Are they really non-constructive? Is there a hidden axiom of choice? Is there a way to prove the theorem in a constructive way?
Thank you for your insights.
In the very general case the a weaker form of the axiom of choice is needed, namely the Prime Ideal Theorem. This is because, in the general case, an ultrafilter in the Lindenbaum's algebra is a complete and consistent theory.
On the other hand if the language is countable you can enumerate its sentences hence using the axiom of choice is not necessary. Of course, the construction of the complete consistent set of sentences is fairly non-constructive. The argument is as follows:
Let $T_0$ be a consistent set of sentences. Define:
$$T_{n+1} =\begin{cases} T_n\cup\{\phi_n\} & \textrm{ if } T_n\cup\{\phi_n\}\textrm{ is consistent} \\ T_n\cup\{\lnot\phi_n\} & \textrm{ otherwise} \end{cases}$$
In the second case it is obvious that $T_n\models\lnot\phi_n$, hence $T_n\cup\{\lnot\phi_n\}$ is consistent, if $T_n$ is. It is fairly easy to see that $T^\star=\bigcup_{n\in\mathbb{N}}T_n$ is complete and consistent. The completeness follows directly from the fact that for every sentence $\phi$ $T^\star$ contains either $\phi$ or $\lnot\phi$. The consistency is seen as follows: If $T^\star$ proved an inconsistency, then finite number of sentences would be part of the proof, hence some $T_n$ would be inconsistent.
As you can see this is highly non-constructive. It is unclear how you can decide which of the sets is consistent (in fact in many cases you cannot). Of course there is no use of the axiom of choice here.