Suppose I have a first order differential equation of the form:
$\frac{dx}{dt} = \frac{1}{\tau}f(x,t)$
where $f(x,t)$ is a nonlinear function. In the limit where the time constant $\tau$ is small, the differential equation can be approximated by an algebraic equation. This is done by rearranging the equation.
$\tau\frac{dx}{dt} = f(x,t)$
ie: as $\tau \rightarrow 0$, $f(x,t) \rightarrow 0$. Physically this makes sense. How can one mathematically justify this though? Without the above manipulation, one ends up with $\frac{dx}{dt} \rightarrow \infty$. Can this somehow be equated to $f(x,t) \rightarrow 0$ ?
For a counterexample, take
$$\dot x=\frac{\sqrt{xt}}\tau.$$
Then
$$2\sqrt x=\frac{2t^{3/2}}{3\tau}+C,\\ x=\left(\frac{t^{3/2}}{3\tau}+C\right)^2$$
As $\tau$ decreases, the solution increases as $\dfrac1{\tau^2}$.