A set $A$ is said to have the Baire property if it differs from an open set by a meagre set, that is, if there exists an open set $G$ such that $A\Delta G$ is meager (where $\Delta$ denotes the operation of symmetric difference). Equivalently, A set $A$ is said to have the Baire property if it differs from a closed set by a meagre set, that is, if there exists a closed set $F$ such that $A\Delta F$ is meagre.
There also exist sets which are "almost clopen" in the sense that they differ from a clopen set by a meagre set. Since every clopen set is open (and closed), is the terminology "Baire property" adequate to characterise such sets? I mean, can I say that a set $A$ which differs from a clopen set by a meagre set has the Baire property, or is it better not to use this terminology in that case?