Suppose that we have a (almost surely) continuous stochastic process $\{ X_{t} \}_{t \geq 0}$ on $[0,1]$ with non-stochastic initial value $X_{0} = x_{0} \in [0,1]$ and exponentially decreasing expectation $E(X_{t}) = x_{0} e^{-\gamma t}$, where $\gamma > 0$.
For the corresponding discrete-time process $\{ X_{n} \}_{n = 0}^{\infty}$, an application of the Markov inequality and the Borel–Cantelli lemma shows that $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} X_{n} = 0$ almost surely. Is the same true for the continuous-time process $\{ X_{t} \}$, i.e. do we have $\lim_{t \rightarrow \infty} X_{t} = 0$ almost surely?
Originally, the process $\{ X_{t} \}$ is the (almost surely) unique, continuous, and Markovian solution of the Ito stochastic differential equation \begin{equation*} dX_{t} = -\gamma X_{t} dt + k \sqrt{\gamma} \sqrt{X_{t}^{3}(1-X_{t})}dW_{t}, \ X_{0} = x_{0} \in [0,1] \end{equation*} where $k > 0$ and $W_{t}$ is a Brownian motion. Does this ensure the almost sure convergence towards $0$?
By applying Ito's formulq we get $e^{\gamma t}X_t$ is a local martingale, so it is a supermartingale for it is positive, and so it is for $X_t$. Then by some classical argument(for example an exercise in Chapter 1 of Brownian motion and stochastic calculus) we know any positive supermartingale converge almost surely. Denote its limit by $X_{\infty}\geq 0$, Fatou's lemma gives
$$E[X_{\infty}]\leq\liminf_{t\rightarrow\infty}E[X_t]=0$$
which allows to show $X_{\infty}=0$ a.s.