Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space. It is complete if every Cauchy sequence for $d$ on $X$ is convergent.
I've heard an alternative definition of completeness for $(X,d)$: it is complete iff the following condition holds:
Let $\{x_n\}\subset X$ be a sequence of points which leaves every compact set of $X$ (we say $\{x_n\}$ goes to infinity), then $\displaystyle{\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}d(x,x_n)=\infty}$ for every point $x\in X$.
Is this alternative characterization right? Where can I find a proof of the equivalence of the two characterizations?
Thank you!
Consider $X = \mathbb R$ in the discrete metric. Then a set is compact if and only if it is finite. Now, take for example $x_n$ an enumeration of $\mathbb Q$. Then $x_n$ leaves eventually every finite subset of $\mathbb R$.
Also note that $d(x,x_n) \to 1$ for all $x \in \mathbb R$.