The unilateral Laplace transform of $f(t)$ is $\int_0^\infty e^{st} f(t) \mathrm{d}t$.
If we define the transform as $\int_{a}^\infty e^{st} f(t) \mathrm{d}t$, would it conserve all the nice properties of the true Laplace transform (e.g., the convolution theorem)?
How would its inverse be?
This is what you get when you have a unit step function. (Heaviside function).
If $\int_0^{\infty} f(t) e^{-st} dt = F(s)$ then $\int_a^{\infty} f(t) e^{-st} dt = e^{-as} F(s)$