It is known that if a group $G$ acts amenably on a set $X$ and the stabilizer of every point in $X$ is amenable, then $G$ itself is amenable.
Is there any elementary proof of this fact?
Thanks!
It is known that if a group $G$ acts amenably on a set $X$ and the stabilizer of every point in $X$ is amenable, then $G$ itself is amenable.
Is there any elementary proof of this fact?
Thanks!
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