If $p$ is prime, then $(x+y)^p=x^p+y^p$ holds in any field of characteristic $p$. (proved with the help of the Binomial Theorem) But now I need to prove that this implies that this is true for any $(a+b+c...+n)^p = a^p + b^p + \cdots + n^p$. The paper says I have to prove it via Induction. I want to prove:
$$(a_1+\cdots+a_n)^p=a_1^p+\cdots+a_n^p$$
Thank you for any answers!
Well, it is obviously true for one term and also for two via the binomial theorem. Now, suppose the assertion holds for $k-1$ ($k\ge3$) terms, i.e.
$$(a_1+\cdots+a_{k-1})^p=a_1^p+\cdots+a_{k-1}^p\,.$$
Then
\begin{align*} (a_1+\cdots+a_{k-2}+a_{k-1}+a_k)^p &=(a_1+\cdots+a_{k-2}+(a_{k-1}+a_k))^p \\ &=a_1^p+\cdots+a_{k-2}^p+(a_{k-1}+a_k)^p \\ &=a_1^p+\cdots+a_{k-2}^p+a_{k-1}^p+a_k^p \end{align*}
where we first use the induction hypothesis and then the case $k=2$.