The problem is as follows:
For $m\ge n>1$ prove that $$(m-2)!(n-1)+(n-2)!(m-1)+(m-2)(n-2)\ge (m-1)(n-1)$$
Since $(m-1)(n-1)-(m-2)(n-2)=m+n-3$ so we only need to show that $$(m-2)!(n-1)+(n-2)!(m-1)\ge m+n-3$$. On the face of it this seems to hold but what would be a rigorous way of showing this?
Hint: Since $m\ge n$, write $m=n+k$ with $k\ge 0$ and do induction over $k$. (So actually the induction is over $m-n$). For $k=0$ it is obvious (but let's do it also for $k=1$). So,
\begin{align}m+n-3&=(n+k+1)+n-3\\&=\underbrace{(n+k)+n-3}_{\text{Induction hypothesis}}+1\\&\le (n+k-2)!(n-1)+(n-2)!(n+k-1)+1\\&=(n+k-2)!(n-1)+(n-2)!(n+k)-(n-2)!+1 \\&\le (n+k-2)!(n-1)+(n-2)!(n+k) \\&\le (n+k-1)!(n-1)+(n-2)!(n+k)\\&=(m-2)!(n-1)+(n-2)!(m-1)\end{align}