This result appears to be ubiquitous as an algebra exercise. How do you prove this result?
Let $A$ be an integral domain with field of fractions $K$, and let $A_{\mathfrak{m}}$ denote the localisation of $A$ at a maximal ideal $\mathfrak{m}$ considered as a subring of $K$. Prove that $$A = \bigcap_{\mathfrak{m}} A_{\mathfrak{m}}\,,$$ where the intersection is taken over all maximal ideals $\mathfrak{m}$ of $A$.
Since $A$ is a domain, the localization map $A \to A_{\mathfrak m}$ is injective for every maximal ideal $\mathfrak m$, so $A \subseteq \cap_{\mathfrak m \in \text{mSpec} A} A_{\mathfrak m}$. The other inclusion is more interesting: suppose $z \in K$, with $z \in A_{\mathfrak m}$ for every maximal ideal $\mathfrak m$. Consider the $A$-ideal $I := A :_A Az = \{x \in A \mid xz \in A\}$. We want $1 \in I$, i.e. $I = A$. But to show this we can localize: $I_{\mathfrak m} = (A :_A Az)_{\mathfrak m} = A_{\mathfrak m} :_{A_{\mathfrak m}} A_{\mathfrak m}z = A_{\mathfrak m}$ (since $Az$ is a finitely generated $A$-module) for every maximal ideal ${\mathfrak m}$, so indeed $I = A$.