Suppose that $M$ balls are distributed among two urns and at each time point one of the balls is chosen at random, removed from its urn and placed in the other one. Now, in the long run the probability that a ball is in urn 1 is $1/2$. Is this because of time-reversibility ? I am understanding it intuitively, but how to prove it formally ?
2026-04-25 00:52:56.1777078376
An urn probability problem
229 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in PROBABILITY
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