Let $\theta_{kl}$ be an angle such that $\cos\theta_{kl}=\frac{1}{2}(\cos(\frac{2\pi k}{n})+\cos(\frac{2\pi l}{n}))$.
Given that definition, if I introduce a new variable $t$ is the following a correct?
$\cos(t\theta_{kl})\approx\frac{1}{2}(\cos(\frac{2\pi kt}{n})+\cos(\frac{2\pi lt}{n}))$
Update: I'm actually interested in the asymptotics of $\theta_{kl}$. By a second order approximation $\theta_{kl}^2=O(\frac{k^2+l^2}{n^2})$. Is it correct? If it is, then the above holds, right? But $\theta_{kl}$ needs to be small.
My reasoning is the following:
By definition $\cos\theta_{kl}=\frac{1}{2}\cos\frac{2\pi k}{n}+\frac{1}{2}\cos\frac{2\pi l}{n}$.
Given that $\theta_{kl}$ is small, we take the Taylor expansion on both sides up to the second term and obtain
$1-\theta_{kl}^2\approx\frac{1}{2}(1-\frac{4\pi^2k^2}{n^2}+1-\frac{4\pi^2l}{n^2})=1-\frac{2\pi^2k^2+2\pi^2l^2}{n^2}$,
which implies
$\theta_{kl}=O(\frac{k+l}{n})$.