Is it correct to say that some number $A$ is rational because $A$ is $\frac{A}{1}$?
Because the only restriction I had see for rationality is $A=\frac{a}{b}$ with $b\neq0$, but in that way I can say $\pi$ is rational because $\pi=\frac{\pi}{1}$. What's the problem here?
$a$ and $b$ must be integers. $\pi$ is not