I made a program to find out the number of primes within a certain range, for example between $1$ and $10000$ I found $1229$ primes, I then increased my range to $20000$ and then I found $2262$ primes, after doing it for $1$ to $30000$, I found $3245$ primes.
Now a curious thing to notice is that each time, The probability of finding a prime in between $2$ multiples of $10000$ is decreasing, i.e it was $$\frac{2262-1229}{10000}=0.1033$$ between $10000$ and $20000$, and $$\frac{3245-2262}{10000}=0.0983$$ between $20000$ and $30000$,
So from this can we infer that there will exist two numbers separated by a gap of $10000$ such that no number in between them is prime? If so how to determine the first two numbers with which this happens? Also I took $10000$ just as a reference here, what about if the gap between them in general is $x$, can we do something for this in generality?
Thanks!
The Prime Number Theorem states that the number of primes $\pi(x)$ up to a given $x$ is $$\pi(x) \sim \frac{x}{\log(x)}$$ which means that the probability of finding a prime is decreasing if you make your "population" $x$ larger. So yes, there exist a gap of $n$ numbers whereof none are prime.
The way to find the first gap for some $n$ has to be done through the use of software, since the exact distribution of prime numbers is only approximated by $\frac{x}{\log(x)}$.
EDIT: That the PNT implies that there's always a gap of size $n$ can be seen by considering what would happen if this was not the case; if there was a maximum gap of $n$ that was reached after some $x$, the probability of finding a prime between $x$ and some larger number $m$ would no longer decrease as $m \to \infty$, which contradicts the PNT.