If we consider two definitions of the natural numbers:
Definition 1
$N$ is the set that satisfies all of:
- There is an element $0$ in $N$.
- For each element $n$ in $N$, there is the successor of $n$, $Sn$.
- There is no element in $N$ whose successor is 0.
- For each $m$ and $n$ in $N$, $Sm=Sn$ implies $m=n$.
- For any subset $A$ of $N$, if $A$ contains $0$ and, for each $n$ in $A$, it holds that if $A$ contains $n$ then $A$ contains $Sn$, then $A=N$.
Definition 2
$N$ is the smallest set that satisfies all of:
- There is an element $0$ in $N$.
- For each element $n$ in $N$, there is the successor of $n$, $Sn$.
- There is no element in $N$ whose successor is 0.
- For each $m$ and $n$ in $N$, $Sm=Sn$ implies $m=n$.
Are these exactly equivalent? Does this get around the need for the induction axiom?
With just a bit of tweaking, Definition 2 can be shown to be equivalent to Definition 1:
Let $X$ be a set such that
Let $N$ be the smallest subset of $X$ such that
Then this subset $N$ will be identical in structure to that given by Definition 1.
By "the smallest subset" I mean the intersection of all subsets of $X$ that meet these two requirements.
For a formal development of this idea, see "Daddy, where do numbers come from?" (February 19, 2013) and "What is a number again?" (Janunary 22, 2014) at my math blog.