My friend insisted that $(-1)^{(-n)}$ is equivalent to $(-1)^n$ for any number of $n$. A quick check in the Wolfram Alpha show false like this:
But then he showed me the working (substituting $n=0$ to $n=3$ in each expression)and indeed they are the same.
So, I am a bit confused on whether those two expressions are really equal. Will they give out the same number every time or am i missing something?

I assume your friend and you both know that the expression $(-1)^x$ only makes sense if $x$ is an integer.
That said, you have
$$(-1)^{(-n)} = \frac{1}{(-1)^n} = \left(\frac{1}{-1}\right)^n = (-1)^n$$
I believe all steps only use equalities you learnt in school: