I have no clue how to explain this in words, but I thought of the integral $$\int_{z=0}^1\int_{\sin x=0}^y\cos x\ d\left(\sin x\right)dz$$ and I'm wondering if it would be possible. I wrote it that way to make it less ambiguous and look less like $\int_0^y\cos x\cdot\frac{d}{dx}\sin x$ as d(sinx) could be ambiguous. I think I've solved it but it could just be meaningless
Edit: For all of you thinking the d(sinx) is a typo it isnt, i want to integrate from sinx=0 to sinx = y, i added the 2nd integral to make it less ambiguous but people ended up thinking its a typo
It is a result of Leibniz that $\frac{dy}{dx}dx=dy$. The chain rule of differentiation and the u-substitution of integration are both essentially the same fact as this. What you did was simply a u-substitution, and perfectly valid.