The associative law states that for the logic formula:
$$(A \wedge B) \wedge C = A \wedge (B \wedge C)$$
$$(A \vee B) \vee C = A \vee (B \vee C)$$
I asked myself would the associative law hold for multiple operators, so I tested it out on $(A \wedge B) \vee C $ vs $A \wedge (B \vee C) $. This turned out to not be true once I did I truth table. For the first formula as long as C is true the entire thing is true even if A is not true, while for the second, A must be true in order for the logic formula to hold true.
My question is are there times when the associative law still works when I have multiple operators and not just two (e.g. $A \wedge B \wedge C \vee D\vee E$). How can I tell immediately whether or not the associative law is applicable? Are there operators (such as $\downarrow$) that work with the associative law even when I have different operators in the same formula?
Apart from conjunction and disjunction, other associative operations are the biconditional $\leftrightarrow$ and the exclusive-or $\oplus$, where $a\oplus b$ is defined as $(a\land\lnot b)\lor (\lnot a\land b)$, i.e., $a\oplus b$ is true if and only if exactly one of $a$ and $b$ is true. The conditional $\rightarrow$ is not associative.
To your broader question, I'd say it's not entirely clear what it means to say that the associative law applies to 'multiple operators': typically, it's only applied to iterations of the same operator.
In your example with $(a\land b)\lor c$ and $a\land (b\lor c)$, you can replace $a\land b$ with $f(a,b)$, and $a\lor b$ with $g(a,b)$. Your suggestion is then that associativity would require that $g(f(a,b), c)$ is equivalent to $f(a, g(b,c))$. However, it's not entirely clear that this is what associativity should mean in this context; and even if it does, you can't expect it to hold in general.