I came across a paper, in which one of the axiom stated: $\forall x,y \in$ R, $L$ is a left ideal of R, we have $x(Ly)=(xL)y$ I am not able to see how this is true. Cause for the LHS we have right ideal $LR$, which is $\neq RL$.I think I am missing out on some property maybe. Any hints?
2026-04-04 04:36:16.1775277376
Associativity in Non commutative rings
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