So I've been trying to figure out how to prove this statement:
Assuming p $\to$ (q OR r) and p $\to$ (q OR NOT r), prove p $\to$ q.
This is about as far as I got:
- p → (q OR r) // Given
- p → (q OR NOT r) // Given
- p // Given (I assume that p must exist in order to prove that p → q)
- q OR r // 1, 3, modus ponens
- q OR NOT r // 2, 3, modus ponens
- (q OR r) AND (q OR NOT r) // 4, 5, conjunction
I'm not sure if I'm on the right track, and even if I am, I don't know how to proceed... Could I get a hint? Thanks in advance!
So far so good....you've arrived at:
$(6)\quad (q \lor r)\land (q\lor \lnot r)\tag{correct}$
Your next step, by using the distributive property of "or" over $\land$, we have
$$(7) \quad q\lor (r \land \lnot r)\tag{from (6) Distributive property} $$
$$(8)\quad q \lor (F)\tag{from (7) contradiction}$$
$$(9) \quad q\tag{from (8)}$$ $$(10)\quad p\rightarrow q \;\;(3, 9)\tag{conditional introduction}$$