I'm reading an economics paper and I'm trying to understand if a statement made by the author is an assumption or the consequence of a previous definition.
The part I don't understand is the following:
At each period $t$ the state of the economy is described by the current distribution of wealth, represented by a distribution function $G_t(w)$ (which representes the fraction of the population with current wealth below $w$). Aggregate wealth, (which is also the average wealth) $W_t$ is given by
$W_t=\int wdG_t(w)$
I don't understand if in this case, with this distribution function, the aggregate wealth is always equal to the average wealth, or if it is an assumption. I also add some assumptions made before this statement, but I don't know if they're relevant.
After these first assumptions, I found this integral.
Closed economy with an infinite, discrete time horizion $t=0, 1, 2, \dots$ and a stationary population of infinitely-lived dynasties $I=[0,1]$. There are two goods [...].
Often economic models consider atomistic individuals with a mass of 1. This is without loss of generality in most cases. Aggregate wealth and average wealth are same in that case. Please check the model specification for the mass of individuals.