I'm trying to prove : $⊢(a→b)→(¬b→¬a)$ , or the contrapositive as a wff, using the following 6 axioms, the Hypothetical Syllogism rule, and Modus Ponens.
L1. β→(α→β)
L2. (φ→(α→β))→((φ→α)→(φ→β))
L3. ((¬α)→(¬β))→(β→α)
L4. φ→φ
L5. (¬(¬φ))→φ
L6. φ→(¬(¬φ))
This would be a rather simple proof if I could use deduction or assumptions, but I'm trying to prove axiomatically.
My first thought was to play around with L3, which would give me $((¬¬α)→(¬¬β))→(¬β→¬α)$, and then, I can get to $((¬¬α)→(¬¬β))→(α→β)$ using H.S., but I'm not at all sure this is the right direction.
I know I have all the needed axioms, and am probably skipping over something, and I'd really appreciate a boost in the right direction.
Also, if anyone knows what axiom system uses the 6 above, I'd really appreciate it, I've found a few similar ones (some of Hilbert with Lukasiewicz I think?)
You could let $x = ¬ \alpha$, and $y = ¬\beta$, which then you will get $(¬x \to ¬y)$, then to $(y \to x)$ from $L3$, which you can substitute back out to give you $(¬b \to ¬a)$, and then using H.S. to give you the proof.
This could be entirely wrong, though, and take this with a grain of salt.