On the interval $[-\pi,\pi]$ consider the function, $$ f(\theta) = \begin{cases} 0 & \texttt{if $|\theta|>\delta$}, \\ 1-\frac{|\theta|}{\delta} & \texttt{if$|\theta| \le \delta$.} \end{cases} $$
Show that $$f(\theta) = \frac{\delta}{2\pi} + 2 \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1 - \cos n\delta}{n^{2}\pi \delta} \cos n\theta.$$
I know that I will use the following definition of the Fourier Series,$$f(\theta) = \sum_{n = -\infty}^{\infty} \hat{f}(n) e^{in\theta}$$
where the Fourier Coefficient is given by,$$\hat{f}(n) = \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}f(\theta) e^{-in\theta} d\theta,$$
And I wrote the detailed definition of the function as follows:$$ f(\theta) = \begin{cases} 0 & \texttt{if $\theta<-\delta \ and \ \theta>\delta $}, \\ 1-\frac{\theta}{\delta} & \texttt{if$-\delta \le \theta \le \delta$ and $\theta$ is +ve.},\\ 1+\frac{\theta}{\delta} & \texttt{if$-\delta \le \theta \le \delta$ and $\theta$ is -ve..} \end{cases}. $$
I am not sure if this detailed definition is right? And if there is a simpler one? I do not know exactly How to divide the interval of integration while calculating $\hat{f}(n)$? What is the relation between $\delta$ and the interval $[-\pi , \pi]?$ Is $\delta$ a very small positive quantity inside the interval as we know?
Could anyone tackle this with me?
thanks.
I'll write why it's an inner product in a seperate answer:
Given $[a,b] ⊆ \mathbb{R}$ ,Define the vector space $V=C([a,b],\mathbb{C})$ over $\mathbb{C}$.
I'll show that $<,>:V \times V\to \mathbb{C}$, $<f,g>:=\frac{1}{b-a} \int_{t=a}^b f(t) \overline {g(t)}dt$ is an inner product on $V$. I'll note that $C([a,b],\mathbb{C})$ are the continuous functions from $[a,b]$ to $\mathbb{C}$.
(i) Linearity in the first argument: This is immediate due to linearity of the integral.
(ii) Conjugate symmetry:
$\overline {<f,g>}= \overline{\frac{1}{b-a} \int_{t=a}^b f(t) \overline {g(t)}dt}= \frac{1}{b-a} \int_{t=a}^b \overline{f(t) \overline {g(t)}}dt=\frac{1}{b-a} \int_{t=a}^b \overline{f(t)} g(t)dt=<g,f>$
(iii) Positive-definiteness:
$<f,f>=\frac{1}{b-a} \int_{t=a}^b f(t) \overline {f(t)}dt=\frac{1}{b-a} \int_{t=a}^b |f(t)|^2 dt$
$|f(t)|^2 $ is a positive integrable function and therefore $<f,f> \geq0$. Also from the fact that $f$ is continuous we get that $\int_{t=a}^b |f(t)|^2 dt=0$ if and only if $f(t)=0$ for every $t \in [a,b]$.
I hope this ansers the question about (2).