In the first equation I can't figure out where the $1/x$ part comes from...
When using first-order taylor approximation arount $x_t = x$, I just get
$ln(1)*(x_t-x) = (x_t-x)$
Thank you for your help!
2026-04-04 15:12:36.1775315556
Basic log-linearization
102 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in CALCULUS
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