If $p(S|\neg G) = 0$, then $p(\neg G \& R) > 0 \implies p(S\mid \lnot G\& R)=0$.
Could someone please prove this?
Many thanks in advance.
If $p(S|\neg G) = 0$, then $p(\neg G \& R) > 0 \implies p(S\mid \lnot G\& R)=0$.
Could someone please prove this?
Many thanks in advance.
Use the definition of conditional probability.
$$\def\amp{\mathop{\&}}\begin{align}\mathsf P(S\mid\neg G\amp R) &=\dfrac{\mathsf P(S\amp(\lnot G\amp R))}{\mathsf P(\lnot G\amp R)}&&\text{by definition of conditional probability}\\&=\dfrac{\mathsf P(\lnot G\amp(S\amp R))}{\mathsf P(\lnot G\amp R)}&&\text{using commutivity and associativity of }\amp\\&~~\vdots&&\text{and so on...}\end{align}$$