Page 115, Topology, Munkres.
The statement is:
For the product topology, I understand that $U_{ \alpha}$ equals $X_{\alpha}$ for finitely many values of $\alpha$, but I don't understand how the following is true:
$\pi_{i_1}^{-1}(U_{i_1})\cap \cdots \cap \pi_{i_n}^{-1}(U_{i_n}) = \prod_{i\in I}U_i,$
where $U_i = \begin{cases} U_{i_k} & \text{if $i=i_k$ for some $k=1,\ldots,n$},\\ X_i & \text{otherwise}. \end{cases}$
I can only make sense of it for only one term, for example,
$\pi_{i_1}^{-1}(U_{i_1}) = X_i \times ... U_{i_1} \times ...$
is indeed $\prod_{i\in I}U_i$
But when I generalize to finite intersections I don't get how these intersections still give the same relation $\prod_{i\in I}U_i$ , if I understand this part then the conclusion that the box topology is finer than the product topology becomes clear to me, any help would be much appreciated.

Consider the same for $2$:
$\pi_{i_1}^{-1}(U_{i_1}) = X_i \times ... U_{i_1} \times ...$ and $\pi_{i_2}^{-1}(U_{i_2}) = X_i \times ... U_{i_2} \times ...$
Then, (assuming $i_1 \neq i_2$, as this case is trivial) \begin{align} \pi_{i_1}^{-1}(U_{i_1})\cap \pi_{i_2}^{-1}(U_{i_2}) &= (X_i \times ... U_{i_1} \times ...) \cap (X_i \times ... U_{i_2} \times ...) \\ &= (X_i\cap X_i) \times ... (U_{i_1}\cap X_{i_1}) \times ... (X_{i_2}\cap U_{i_2}) \times ... \\ &= X_i \times ... U_{i_1} \times ... U_{i_2} \times ... \\ &= \prod_{i\in I}U_i \\ \end{align}