There is some (recent) evidence that neurological activity is log-normally distributed. Does this invalidate the use of Bayes Theorem with these data?
I ask because a major branch of computational neuroscience is based in Bayes, and I am concerned whether the application of Bayesian techniques are legitimate with neurological data.
Thanks.
Bayes' theorem does not depend on the probability distribution, only on the definition of conditional probability. In particular, the distribution is not required to be normal, and the theorem still applies to log-normal distributions.